Here is what I do not understand about the story (I don’t buy it per se, but this is a big hole). So apparently Pamela is the only one who can identify him, but I am sure he would told her that due to divergence that they may not even meet again. At best they could only re unite in a worldline that was close enough and it technically wouldn’t even be the same John. Even so, if a song was a code word…wouldn’t someone like John have foreseen someone could have came along and guessed it and created a different method? Like the song was never to be explicitly stated, but they have something like 88 ways to prove they both know what it is?
Like it could be one and only one thing and if for some reason they didn’t verify it…it would be assumed the divergence was too great for it to hold true in this worldline?
After all…with divergence in all the different world lines…isn’t it inevitable that some impostor would come along and guess what it is? Multi verse theory is interesting. It just seems like someone like John, if legit…would have thought of a better way than just saying the name of a song.
John Titor actually states several times that he can return to his “home” universe (zero divergence), so maybe the “original” John can indeed time travel along his “home” time line and meet up with her. I’m only speculating, but you never know.
John Titor quotes supporting this:
Are you able to return to your home?
Yes.
Do people know where you are? Can you communicate with your home?
No. They do not know where I am and I cannot communicate with them. Interesting idea though. From their point of view, I will return almost exactly at the same moment I left. From their viewpoint, I will only have aged more than expected.
— If he could not return home, then he would encounter a double of himself in this situation, would he not?
If this worldline is 2 percent divergent from your worldline, how do you get home? If you go forward from here to 2036, won’t the divergence approach infinity?
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Yes, this is true. If I go forward on this worldline, the future will not be my future. I get home by going back to 1975 before I arrived and then going forward to 2036.
— He is implying that he CAN indeed return to his “home” timeline, so why would he not be able to travel along that same timeline with zero divergence?
Here he explains how to get back to “home” universe A:
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If I go forward on this worldline, the future will not be my future. I get home by going back to 1975 before I arrived and then going forward to 2036.A few people have asked me about this statement so I will try to clarify it.
On my worldline: (A) in 2036, I was given a mission in 1975. I turn my machine on and jump to another worldline (B) in 1975 with about a 2% divergence from (A).
Personally, since divergence is an existing mathematical concept and 0 is used in math, I don’t see why 0 divergence would be impossible if one used the proper technology. Don’t ask me how. If I knew, I’d be time traveling. LOL.
